1. The speech of annhilation of caste (1937) was given by ------- Dr. BR Ambedkar
2. Ants go in a line by secretion of ? ------- Hormones
3. World largest Uranium producing country is ? ------ Kazakhstan
4. Widal test is used to detect ----------- Typhoid
5. which state is Not in Seven sisters (North eastern states ) --------- Sikkim
6.India largest producer and found in black sand beaches -------- Iliminite
7. Which of the following is wrongly matched ------- Nagarjuna sagar---Cauvery
8. Who wrote the Book - Partition of India ? ------------ Jaswant Singh
9. Food poisoning organism is ? -------------Staphylococus aureus
10. The election of Vice president can be challenged before ? ------- Supreme court
11. 87:10:3 ( copper :Tin: Zink) ?--------- Brass
12.Name the Only city in a world situated in two continents of the world ? ------ Istambul
13. Which Portion of heart received oxygenated blood ? ---------- Left atrium
14. Which of the following is not an epic ? -------- Canterbury Tales
15. Who was the National flag bearer at the closing ceremony of London-2012 Olympics ? -- Marykom
16.16th Summit of Non aligned movement held recently at which country ? -------- Iran
17. What is Body Mass Index (BMI) ? ----------- Weight of the person /Height^2
18. what is Good Blood Cholesterol ------ HDL
19. Badami caves made during the regime of which rulers ? ----------- Chalukya
20. What used in industry to etch glasses ?---------- Hydrofluoric acid
21. Jawaharlal Nehru port ---Mumbai ; Kandla-----Gujarat; Para deep port ----Odessa
22. Name the famous poet who was deeply affected by Tagore Gitanjali ?------ William Bulter Yeats
23. Blue vitriol another name for ? ----- Copper sulfate
24. Article confer power on the supreme court to issue appropriate direction -------- Article 32
25. Yojana for employment on 1st April 2005 is ? ------ Rajiv Gandhi Kalyan yojana
26. Khaira decease of paddy is due to soil deficiency of ? ------- Zink
Percentage Impedance of Power Transformer
"The percentage impedance of a transformer is the volt drop on full load
due to the winding resistance and leakage reactance expressed as a
percentage of the rated voltage."
"It is also the percentage of the normal terminal voltage at on side required to circulate full-load current under short circuit conditions on other side."
The impedance of a transformer has a major effect on system fault levels. It determines the maximum value of current that will flow under fault conditions.
It is easy to calculate the maximum current that a transformer can deliver under symmetrical fault conditions. By way of example, consider a 2 MVA transformer with an impedance of 5%. The maximum fault level available on the secondary side is:
2 MVA x 100/5 = 40 MVA and from this figure the equivalent primary and secondary fault currents can be calculated.
A transformer with a lower impedance will lead to a higher fault level (and vice versa).
the percentage impedance of a transformer is defined as the percentage of the drop in voltage to the at full load to the rated voltage of the transformer. This drop in voltage is due to the winding resistance and leakage reactance.
Alternatively, the percentage of a transformer can be described as
the percentage of the nominal voltage in the primary that is required
to circulate the rated current in the secondary.
The impedance of a transformer can be measured by means of a short-circuit test.
The secondary of the transformer whose percentage impedance is to be measured is shorted. The voltage on the primary is gradually increased from zero till the secondary current reaches the transformer's rated value.
The percentage impedance of the transformer is calculated as
Z%= (Impedance Voltage/Rated Voltage)*100
Thus a transformer with a primary rating of 110V which requires a voltage of 10V to circulate the rated current in the short-circuited secondary would have an impedance of 9%.
The percentage impedance of a transformer a crucial parameter when operating transformers in parallel. It also determines the fault level of a system during faults.
Importance of Percentage Impedance (%Z):
1. It decides suitability of transformer to the system
2. It limits Short Circuit Current (Inversely)
3. It causes voltage drop (Directly)
For transformers up to 2 MVA it is around 5%, Above 2 MVA it varies up to 25% also.
Note: %Z is depends on Resistance value (%Z = V R^2 + X^2). Resistance value may affect with temperature, so, all resistance and Impedance values must convert in to standard temperature of 75%.
"It is also the percentage of the normal terminal voltage at on side required to circulate full-load current under short circuit conditions on other side."
The impedance of a transformer has a major effect on system fault levels. It determines the maximum value of current that will flow under fault conditions.
It is easy to calculate the maximum current that a transformer can deliver under symmetrical fault conditions. By way of example, consider a 2 MVA transformer with an impedance of 5%. The maximum fault level available on the secondary side is:
2 MVA x 100/5 = 40 MVA and from this figure the equivalent primary and secondary fault currents can be calculated.
A transformer with a lower impedance will lead to a higher fault level (and vice versa).
the percentage impedance of a transformer is defined as the percentage of the drop in voltage to the at full load to the rated voltage of the transformer. This drop in voltage is due to the winding resistance and leakage reactance.
The impedance of a transformer can be measured by means of a short-circuit test.
The secondary of the transformer whose percentage impedance is to be measured is shorted. The voltage on the primary is gradually increased from zero till the secondary current reaches the transformer's rated value.
The percentage impedance of the transformer is calculated as
Z%= (Impedance Voltage/Rated Voltage)*100
Thus a transformer with a primary rating of 110V which requires a voltage of 10V to circulate the rated current in the short-circuited secondary would have an impedance of 9%.
The percentage impedance of a transformer a crucial parameter when operating transformers in parallel. It also determines the fault level of a system during faults.
Importance of Percentage Impedance (%Z):
1. It decides suitability of transformer to the system
2. It limits Short Circuit Current (Inversely)
3. It causes voltage drop (Directly)
For transformers up to 2 MVA it is around 5%, Above 2 MVA it varies up to 25% also.
Note: %Z is depends on Resistance value (%Z = V R^2 + X^2). Resistance value may affect with temperature, so, all resistance and Impedance values must convert in to standard temperature of 75%.
Indian Polity - 1
1. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chief Justice
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President
2. The President gives his resignation to the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice President
(c) Chief Justice (d) Parliament
3. The second President of the Indian Republic was
(a) V.V.Giri (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years
(c) 2 years (d) till the age of 65 years
5. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister (c) Election Commissioner (d) Governor
6. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President?
(a) They do not require any parliamentary sanction.
(b) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(c) They are shown separately in the budget.
(d) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
7. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 18
8. With reference to the provisions of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is not correct? (I.E.S.1992)
(a) There is no specific procedure mentioned to remove the Governor of a State.
(b) No single person can simultaneously act as a Governor of two States.
(c) In a Union Territory, the Lt. Governor appoints the judges of the High Court.
(d) President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
9. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India? (Bank, P.O. 1992)
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(e) None of these
10. The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Minority of members of the Lower House
(c) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
11. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India? (Transmission Executive's Exam, 1992)
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of the Air Force (d) Chief of the Army
12. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? (S.S.C.1992)
(a) parliament (b) Citizens of India
(c) Lok Sabha (d) President
13. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani (c) Mrs Indira Gandhi (d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
14. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is (Railways, 1992)
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years
(c) 23 years (d) 21 years
15. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by (Assistant Grade.1991)
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Both Houses of Parliament
16. Which of the following powers is not enjoyed by the President of India in the event of emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution? (Assistant Grade, 1991)
(a) He can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(b) He is authorized to direct any state to exercise its Executive power in a particular manner.
(c) He is authorized, during the recess of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanction of the Parliament.
(d) He is authorized to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
17. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the (S.B.I. P.O.91)
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lt. Governor
(d) Majority party in Legislature
18. Who was the first Prime Minister of India? (Railways, 1991)
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
19. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
20. The Union Council of Ministers consists of
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
21. Which of the following is the correct chrono-logical order of the Prime Ministers in India?
I. Indira Gandhi II. Jawaharlal Nehru
III. Morarji Desai IV. Charan Singh
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, I, IV
(c) II, 1, III, IV (d) III, II, IV, I
22. Which of the following is true in context of the President?
(a) He addresses the first session of the Parliament after each general election of the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
(b) He addresses the first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year as well as the last session held at the end of each year.
(c) He addresses the Parliament daily.
(d) None of these.
23. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office?
(a) Vice President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice (d) Speaker
24. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Secretary to the Government of India
(d) None of the above
25. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of
(a) 9 months (b) 6 months
(c) 12 months (d) 3 months
26. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) In all circumstances
(b) In no circumstances
(c) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(d) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
27. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called.
(a) Head of the government
(b) Head of the State
(c) Both Head of the government and State
(d) Head of the Cabinet
28. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Partishad is
(a) Power of impeachment (b) Nomination of members (c) Tenure of membership (d) Indirect election
29. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Inter State Council
30. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in India?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament (d) Speaker
31. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?
(a) He should be a citizen of India.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He must have completed the age of 35 years.
(d) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
32. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(c) The recommendations made by the Vice-President.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
33. Who among the following held office of the Prime Minister for the shortest period? (Bank, P.O. 1992)
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) V.P.Singh
(c) Chandra Shekhar (d) Charan Singh
(e) Morarji Desai
34. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures? (Railway Apprentice's Exam, 1994)
(a) Art 339 (b) Art 340
(c) Art 342 (d) Art 344
35. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha (d) Either House of Parliament
36. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) La) Bahadur Shastri (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Morarji Desai (d) Charan Singh
37. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India? (Teacher's Exam, 1993)
(a) Bhajan Lai (b) Hiteshwar Saikia
(c) Chimanbhai Patel (d) Jyoti Basu
38. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years
(c) 35 years (d) 40 years
39. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Governor (b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Prime Minister (d) Rajya Sabha
40. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(c) President
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman
41. What is the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government? (Teacher's Exam, 1993)
(a) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(b) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
(c) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(d) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
42. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Defence Minister
43. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post? (Intelligence Bureau, 1992)
(a) Once (b) 2 times
(c) 3 times (d) Any number of times
44. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Supreme Court (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
45. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought? (Stenographer's Exam. 1994)
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) It is discretionary (d) If the Council of Ministers so desires
46. Which of the following is not true regarding the Attorney General of India?
(a) He represents Government in any reference made by the President under Article 143.
(b) His consent is necessary for initiating proceedings for contempt, in certain cases.
(c) His consent is necessary for finalisation of appointment of Judges to State High Courts.
(d) He appears in courts of law on behalf of the Houses of Parliament or the speaker.
47. When the Vice President officiates as President, he draws the salary of.
(a) President (b) Member of Parliament
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) Both (a) & (c)
48. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.
(b) The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy & Air Force) are under the direct control of the President.
(c) The responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet
(d) All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
49. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet?
(a) Cabinet Ministers (b) Ministers of State
(c) Deputy Ministers (d) President
50. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC?
(a) Home Ministry (b) President
(c) Cabinet Secretary (d) Vice-President
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chief Justice
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President
2. The President gives his resignation to the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice President
(c) Chief Justice (d) Parliament
3. The second President of the Indian Republic was
(a) V.V.Giri (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years
(c) 2 years (d) till the age of 65 years
5. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister (c) Election Commissioner (d) Governor
6. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President?
(a) They do not require any parliamentary sanction.
(b) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(c) They are shown separately in the budget.
(d) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
7. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 18
8. With reference to the provisions of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is not correct? (I.E.S.1992)
(a) There is no specific procedure mentioned to remove the Governor of a State.
(b) No single person can simultaneously act as a Governor of two States.
(c) In a Union Territory, the Lt. Governor appoints the judges of the High Court.
(d) President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
9. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India? (Bank, P.O. 1992)
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(e) None of these
10. The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Minority of members of the Lower House
(c) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
11. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India? (Transmission Executive's Exam, 1992)
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of the Air Force (d) Chief of the Army
12. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? (S.S.C.1992)
(a) parliament (b) Citizens of India
(c) Lok Sabha (d) President
13. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani (c) Mrs Indira Gandhi (d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
14. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is (Railways, 1992)
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years
(c) 23 years (d) 21 years
15. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by (Assistant Grade.1991)
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Both Houses of Parliament
16. Which of the following powers is not enjoyed by the President of India in the event of emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution? (Assistant Grade, 1991)
(a) He can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(b) He is authorized to direct any state to exercise its Executive power in a particular manner.
(c) He is authorized, during the recess of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanction of the Parliament.
(d) He is authorized to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
17. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the (S.B.I. P.O.91)
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lt. Governor
(d) Majority party in Legislature
18. Who was the first Prime Minister of India? (Railways, 1991)
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
19. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
20. The Union Council of Ministers consists of
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
21. Which of the following is the correct chrono-logical order of the Prime Ministers in India?
I. Indira Gandhi II. Jawaharlal Nehru
III. Morarji Desai IV. Charan Singh
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, I, IV
(c) II, 1, III, IV (d) III, II, IV, I
22. Which of the following is true in context of the President?
(a) He addresses the first session of the Parliament after each general election of the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
(b) He addresses the first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year as well as the last session held at the end of each year.
(c) He addresses the Parliament daily.
(d) None of these.
23. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office?
(a) Vice President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice (d) Speaker
24. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Secretary to the Government of India
(d) None of the above
25. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of
(a) 9 months (b) 6 months
(c) 12 months (d) 3 months
26. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) In all circumstances
(b) In no circumstances
(c) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(d) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
27. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called.
(a) Head of the government
(b) Head of the State
(c) Both Head of the government and State
(d) Head of the Cabinet
28. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Partishad is
(a) Power of impeachment (b) Nomination of members (c) Tenure of membership (d) Indirect election
29. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Inter State Council
30. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in India?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament (d) Speaker
31. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?
(a) He should be a citizen of India.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He must have completed the age of 35 years.
(d) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
32. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(c) The recommendations made by the Vice-President.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
33. Who among the following held office of the Prime Minister for the shortest period? (Bank, P.O. 1992)
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) V.P.Singh
(c) Chandra Shekhar (d) Charan Singh
(e) Morarji Desai
34. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures? (Railway Apprentice's Exam, 1994)
(a) Art 339 (b) Art 340
(c) Art 342 (d) Art 344
35. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha (d) Either House of Parliament
36. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) La) Bahadur Shastri (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Morarji Desai (d) Charan Singh
37. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India? (Teacher's Exam, 1993)
(a) Bhajan Lai (b) Hiteshwar Saikia
(c) Chimanbhai Patel (d) Jyoti Basu
38. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years
(c) 35 years (d) 40 years
39. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Governor (b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Prime Minister (d) Rajya Sabha
40. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(c) President
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman
41. What is the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government? (Teacher's Exam, 1993)
(a) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(b) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
(c) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(d) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
42. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Defence Minister
43. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post? (Intelligence Bureau, 1992)
(a) Once (b) 2 times
(c) 3 times (d) Any number of times
44. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Supreme Court (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
45. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought? (Stenographer's Exam. 1994)
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) It is discretionary (d) If the Council of Ministers so desires
46. Which of the following is not true regarding the Attorney General of India?
(a) He represents Government in any reference made by the President under Article 143.
(b) His consent is necessary for initiating proceedings for contempt, in certain cases.
(c) His consent is necessary for finalisation of appointment of Judges to State High Courts.
(d) He appears in courts of law on behalf of the Houses of Parliament or the speaker.
47. When the Vice President officiates as President, he draws the salary of.
(a) President (b) Member of Parliament
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) Both (a) & (c)
48. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested in the President.
(b) The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy & Air Force) are under the direct control of the President.
(c) The responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet
(d) All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
49. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet?
(a) Cabinet Ministers (b) Ministers of State
(c) Deputy Ministers (d) President
50. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC?
(a) Home Ministry (b) President
(c) Cabinet Secretary (d) Vice-President
RAS RECRUITMENT 2013: SCHEME & SYLLABUS
(1) Scheme of examination: The Combined Competitive Examination will be held in two successive stages-
(i) Preliminary Examination, and
(ii) Main Examination
(i) Preliminary examination: The
Preliminary Examination will consist of one paper on the subject
specified below, which will be of objective type and carry a maximum of
200 marks. The examination is meant to serve as a screening test only.
The Standard of the paper will be that of a Bachelor’s Degree Level. The
marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidates. Who
are declared qualified for admission to Main Examination will not be
counted for determining their final order of merit.
Subject
|
Number of Questions
|
Maximum Marks
|
Time
|
General Knowledge & General Science
|
150
|
200
|
3 Hours
|
NOTE :
· There will be 150 questions of multiple choice (Objective Type), carrying equal marks.
· There will be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
(ii) Main examination:
(a) The number of candidates to be admitted to the Main Examination
will be 15 times the total approximate number of vacancies (category
wise) to be filled in the year in the various Services and posts but in
the said range all those candidates who secure the same percentage of
marks as may be fixed by the Commission for any lower will be admitted
to the Main Examination.
(b) The written examination will consist of the following four papers which will be descriptive /analytical. A candidate must take all the papers listed below which will also consist of question paper of brief, medium, long answer and descriptive type question. The standard of General Hindi and General English will be that of Sr. Secondary Level. The time allowed for each paper shall be 3 hours.
Paper
|
Subject
|
Marks
|
Time
|
I
|
General Studies – I
|
200
|
3 Hours
|
II
|
General Studies – II
|
200
|
3 Hours
|
III
|
General Studies – III
|
200
|
3 Hours
|
IV
|
General Hindi & General English
|
200
|
3 Hours
|
(2) Personality and viva-voce Examination:
(i)
Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying marks in the written test
of the Main Examination as may be fixed by the Commission in their
discretion shall be summoned by them for an interview for a personality
test which carries 100 marks.
(ii)
The Commission shall award marks to each candidate interviewed by them.
In interviewing the candidates besides awarding marks in respect of
character, personality, address, physique, marks shall also be awarded
for the candidate‟s knowledge of Rajasthani culture. However for
selection to the Rajasthan Police Service, candidates having „C‟
Certificate of N.C.C. shall be given preference. The marks so awarded
shall be added to the marks obtained in the written test by each such
candidate.
(2) Syllabus and scope of the papers:
Syllabus for RAS preliminary examination 2013
· History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
o Major Landmarks in the History of Rajasthan, Major Dynasties, their Administrative and Revenue System. Socio-cultural Issues.
o Freedom Movement , Political Awakening and Integration
o Salient features of Architecture – Forts and Monuments
o Arts, Paintings and Handicrafts.
o Important Works of Rajasthani literature. Local Dilects
o Fairs, Festivals, Folk Music and Folk Dances.
o Rajsathani Culture, Traditions and Heritage.
o Religious Movements, Saints& Lok devtas of Rajasthan.
o Important Tourist Places.
o Leading Personalities of Rajasthan
· Indian History
o Ancient & Medieval Period:
§ Salient features and Major Landmarks of Ancient and Medieval India
§ Art, Culture, Literature and Architecture.
§ Major Dynasties, Their Administrative System. Socio-Economic Conditions, Prominent Movements.
o Modern Period:
§ Modern
Indian history (from about the middle of the eighteenth century until
the present) - significant events, personalities and issues.
§ The
Freedom Struggle & Indian National Movement- its various stages and
important contributors and contributions from different parts of the
country.
§ Social and religious reform movements in the 19th and 20th century.
§ Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country
· Geography of World and India:
o World Geography:
§ Broad Physical features.
§ Environmental and Ecological Issues.
§ Wildlife and Bio-diversity.
§ International Waterways.
§ Major Industrial Regions.
o Geography of India:
§ Broad physical features and Major physiographic divisions.
§ Agriculture and Agro based Activities.
§ Minerals – Iron, Manganese, Coal, Oil & Gas, Atomic minerals.
§ Major Industries and Industrial development.
§ Transportation– major transport corridors.
§ Natural Resources.
§ Environmental Problems and Ecological Issues.
· Geography of Rajasthan:
o Broad physical features and Major physiographic divisions.
o Natural Resource of Rajasthan-
o Climate, Natural Vegetation, Forests, Wildlife and Bio-diversity
o Major irrigation projects.
o Mines and Minerals.
o Population.
o Major Industries and Potential for Industrial Development
· Indian Constitution, Political System &Governance:
o Constitutional Development & Indian Constitution :
§ Government
of India Acts: 1919 and 1935, Constituent Assembly, Nature of Indian
Constitution; Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of
State, Fundamental Duties, Federal Structure, Constitutional Amendments,
Emergency Provisions, Public Interest Litigation (P.I.L.) and Judicial
Review.
o Indian Political System and Governance :
§ Nature
of Indian State, Democracy in India, Reorganization of States,
Coalition Governments, Political Parties, National Integration.
§ Union and State Executive; Union and State Legislative, Judiciary
§ President,
Parliament, Supreme Court, Election Commission, Comptroller and Auditor
General, Planning Commission, National Development Council, Central
Vigilance Commission (CVC), Central Information Commission, Lokpal,
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
§ Local Self Government & Panchayati Raj
o Public Policy & Rights
§ National Public Policy as a welfare state.
§ Various Legal Rights and Citizen Charter
· Political and Administrative System of Rajasthan:
o Governor,
Chief Minister, State Assembly, High Court, Rajasthan Public Service
Commission, District Administration, State Human Rights Commission,
Lokayukt, State Election Commission, State Information Commission.
o Public Policy, Legal Rights and Citizen Charter.
· Economic Concepts and Indian Economy:
o Basic Concepts of Economics
§ Basic Knowledge of Budgeting, Banking, Public Finance, National Income, Growth and Development
§ Accounting- Concept, Tools and Uses in Administration
§ Stock Exchange and Share Market
§ Fiscal and Monetary Policies
§ Subsidies, Public Distribution System
§ e-Commerce
§ Inflation- Concept, Impact and Control Mechanism
o Economic Development & Planning
§ 5 Year Plans - Objectives, Strategies and Achievements.
§ Major Sectors of Economy- Agriculture, Industry, Service and Trade- Current Status, Issues & initiatives.
§ Major Economic Problems and Government Initiatives. Economic Reforms and Liberalization
o Human Resource and Economic Development
§ Human Development Index
§ Poverty and Unemployment:- Concept, Types, Causes, Remedies and Current Flagship Schemes.
o Social Justice and Empowerment
§ Provisions for Weaker Sections.
· Economy of Rajasthan:
o Macro overview of Economy.
o Major Agricultural, Industrial and Service Sector Issues.
o Growth, Development and Planning.
o Infrastructure & Resources.
o Major Development Projects.
o Programmes
and Schemes- Government Welfare Schemes for SC/ST/Backward
Class/Minorities/Disabled Persons, Destitute, Women, Children, Old Age
People, Farmers & Labourers.
· Science & Technology:
o Basics of Everyday Science.
o Electronics, Computers, Information and Communication Technology.
o Space Technology including Satellites.
o Defence Technology.
o Nanotechnology.
o Human body, Food and Nutrition, Health care.
o Environmental and Ecological Changes and its Impacts.
o Biodiversity, Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering.
o Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry and Animal Husbandry with special reference to Rajasthan.
o Development of Science and Technology in Rajasthan.
· Reasoning & Mental Ability:
o Logical Reasoning (Deductive, Inductive, Abductive):
§ Statement and Assumptions, Statement and Argument, Statements and Conclusion, Courses of Action.
§ Analytical Reasoning.
o Mental Ability :
§ Number series, Letter series, Odd man out, Coding-Decoding, Problems relating to Relations, Shapes and their sub sections.
o Basic Numeracy :
§ Elementary knowledge of Mathematical and Statistical Analysis.
§ Number
System, Order of Magnitude, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Simple
and Compound Interest, Data Analysis (Tables, Bar diagram, Line graph,
Pie-chart).
· Current Affairs:
o Major Current Events and Issues of State(Rajasthan), National and International Importance
o Persons and Places in recent news
o Games and Sports related Activities
Syllabus for RAS mains examination 2013
Paper – I (General Knowledge and General Studies)
· History, Art, Culture, Literature, Tradition & Heritage of Rajasthan
o Major Landmarks in the History of Rajasthan, Major Dynasties, their Administrative and Revenue System. Socio-cultural Issues.
o Freedom Movement , Political Awakening and Integration
o Salient features of Architecture – Forts and Monuments
o Arts, Paintings and Handicrafts.
o Important Works of Rajasthani literature. Local Dilects
o Fairs, Festivals, Folk Music and Folk Dances.
o Rajsathani Culture, Traditions and Heritage.
o Religious Movements, Saints& Lok devtas of Rajasthan.
o Important Tourist Places.
o Leading Personalities of Rajasthan
· Indian History
o Ancient & Medieval Period:
§ Salient features and Major Landmarks of Ancient and Medieval India.
§ Art, Culture, Literature and Architecture.
§ Major Dynasties, Administrative, Social and Economic system. Socio-cultural Issues, Prominent Movements.
§ Ancient
Indian Cultural System & Ideals- Varna Vyavastha, Ashram Vyavastha,
Sanskar Vyavastha, Doctrine of Purushartha, Rina and Rita.
§ Secularism, Religious Tolerance, Religious Unity.
o Modern Period:
§ Modern
Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until
the present- significant events, personalities, issues.
§ The
Freedom Struggle & Indian National Movement- its various stages and
important contributors /contributions from different parts of the
country.
§ Social and Religious reform movements in the 19th and 20th century.
§ Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country
· History of Modern World
o Renaissance and Reformations.
o American War of Independence.
o Industrial Revolution, French Revolution and Russian Revolution.
o Imperialism and colonialism in Asia and Africa.
o World War First and World War Second.
· Indian Constitution, Political System &Governance
o Indian Constitution: historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
o Determinants and Nature of Indian Politics, Election and Voting Behavior, Coalition Governments.
o Parliamentary Form of Government.
o Federal Dynamics
o Judicial Review.
o Challenges of National Integration
· Administrative System of Rajasthan
o Administrative Setup and Administrative Culture in Rajasthan.
o Various Rights and Citizen Charter.
· Economic Concepts and Indian Economy
o Accounting- Techniques of Analysis of Financial Statements, Working Capital Management.
o Auditing-
Meaning, Objects, Detection of Frauds and Errors, Internal Control,
Social Audit, Propriety Audit, Performance Audit, Efficiency Audit.
o Budgeting-
Different types of Budgeting, Budgetary Control, Responsibility
Accounting, Social Accounting, Different types of Deficits- Budgetary,
Fiscal & Revenue Deficit.
o Major Sectors of Economy- Agriculture, Industry, Service and Trade- Current Status, Issues & initiatives.
o Banking- Role of Commercial Banks, Issue of NPA, Financial Inclusion
o Major Economic Problems and Government Initiatives.
o Growth,
Development & Planning- Issues, trends & initiatives; Fast,
inclusive & Sustainable Growth. Growth Indicators.
o Public
Finance, Monetary Policies, Inflation & Control Mechanism, Repo
Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, CRR & SLR. Tax Reforms in India, Direct
& Indirect Tax Reforms. Subsidies- Cash Transfer of Subsidy Issue.
o Concept of Money Supply and High Powered Money.
o Food Security & PDS.
o Role of Foreign Capital, MNCs in Indian Economy.
o Investment and Disinvestment Policies.
o New waves of Economic Reforms in India.
o Role and Functions of Reserve Bank, SEBI, Planning Commission.
· Economy of Rajasthan
o Macro overview of Economy of Rajasthan.
o Major Agricultural, Industrial and Service sector Issues.
o Growth, Development and Planning with special reference to Rajasthan.
o Infrastructure & Resources, Sources of high growth for Rajasthan Economy.
o Major development projects of Rajasthan.
o Public Private Partnership Model for Economic Transformation in the State.
o Demographic Scenario of the State and its impact.
· Geography of World and India
o World Geography:
§ Broad Physical features.
§ Environmental and Ecological Issues.
§ Current Geopolitical Conflict Zones.
o Geography of India:
§ Broad Physical Features and Major Physiographic Divisions
§ Environmental and Ecological Issues
§ Natural Resources
§ Geography of Rajasthan
§ Major Geographical Regions.
§ Natural Vegetation.
§ Livestock, Wildlife & its Conservation.
§ Agro-climatic Regions.
§ Metallic & Non-Metallic Minerals.
§ Energy Resources- Conventional & Non-conventional.
§ Population & Tribes.
Paper –II (General Knowledge and General Studies)
· Logical reasoning (Deductive, Inductive, Abductive):
o Statement and Assumptions, Statement and Argument, Statements and Conclusion, Courses of Action
o Analytical Reasoning.
· Mental Ability:
o Number
series, Letter series, Odd man out, Coding-Decoding, Problems relating
to Relations, Shapes and their sub sections, Venn diagram.
· Basic Numeracy (Elementary knowledge of Mathematical and Statistical Analysis) :
o Number
System, Problems on Numbers and Order of Magnitude, Ratio and
Proportion, Compound Proportion, Percentage, Average, H.C.F., L.C.M.,
Square Root, Cube Root, Time and Work, Time, Speed and Distance, Simple
and Compound Interest, Area and Perimeter of Simple Geometrical Shapes.
o Data
Analysis (Tables, Bar diagram, Line graph, Pie-chart) and
Interpretation of Categorized Data, Sampling, Probability, Linear
Regression and Correlation, Distribution (Binomial, Poisson &
Normal).
· General Science & Technology
o General and Everyday Science
o Basics of Physics, Chemistry and Biological Sciences.
o Basic Knowledge of Computers and Use of Information Technology in Administration, e-governance, e-commerce.
o Food and Nutrition, Health Care.
o General Issues on Environment, Ecological Preservation, Conservation of Natural Resources, Wildlife and Biodiversity.
o Contributions of Scientists in the Development of Science and Technology with Particular Reference to India
o Importance of Science and Technology in development of India
o Important Technological Concepts and Advancements
o Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
o Space Technology and Robotics
o Forensic Science Technology
o Food and Nutrition Technology
o Nanotechnology
o Biotechnology
o Defence Technology
o Other Recent Technologies and Innovations
o Technology Related Issues Regarding Intellectual Property Right.
o Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Dairy and Animal Husbandry with special reference to Rajasthan.
o Various Scientific & Technological Projects of Rajasthan.
PAPER III (General Knowledge and General Studies)
· Current Affairs
o Major Current events and happenings of State (Rajsathan), National and International Importance
o Persons and Places in recent news
o Games and Sports related Activities
· India and Global Perspective
o India in Global Perspective-
o Current Global Developments impeaching upon Society and Economy of India.
o Emerging World Order in the Post Cold War Era, Role and Impact of UNO and different world Organisations.
o Comparative status of Developing, Emerging and Developed Countries, Problems of Developing Countries.
o Threat of War and Disastrous Weapons, Risks of Nuclear Power.
o Global Economic issues and trends-
o Issue of Economic Imbalances.
o Role of World Bank, IMF WTO & other Important International Organisations in world Economy
o Impacts of Globalisation, Privatisation, Liberalisation,
o International Affair and Diplomatic Strategy-
o International Affair and Indian Foreign Policy.
o International Treaties and Summits.
o Geo–Political and Strategic Developments in India’s Neighbourhoods and their Impact on India.
· Current Sensitive Issues
o Issues
related to National Integrity and Security :Potential areas of
Socio-political conflicts between and within Indian States, Traditional,
Contemporary and Emerging Threats; Internal and External Threats;
Threats of Conflicts, Naxal Problems, Terrorism, Trans-border
Infiltration and Insurgency Issues, Communalism, Organised crimes,
Cyber issues, Drug trafficking and other such issues.
o Governance
Issues : Sustainable and Inclusive Growth, Current Social Challenges,
Issues related to Youth, Women, Children, Old Age People, Minority,
Weaker Sections, Tribal, Farmers, Labourers and Professionals in India
and Rajasthan. Gender Equality, Women Empowerment, Human Rights, Social
Justice, Land Acquisition. Challenges pertaining to Urbanisation,
Demographic imbalances, Regional imbalances and Social Conflicts.
o Pressure
Groups and Organisational Development:-Role of NGOs, Civil Society,
Action Groups, Self Help Groups; Producer’s Associations, Consumer
Forums, Cooperative Groups.
· Possibilities, Resources and Programmes for Development in Rajasthan
o Important Issues of Development with Special Reference to Rajasthan
o Infrastructure & Resources of Rajasthan - Current Status, Issues & Initiatives
o Various National Missions, Projects and Schemes of Rajasthan- Their Objectives and Impact.
· General & Administrative Management
o Management,
Administration and Public Management: Meaning, Nature and Importance;
Theories of Management and Work Leadership; Functions of Management :
Planning, Organization, Staffing, Coordination, Direction, Motivation,
Communication and Control.
o Concept of Power and Authority, Responsibility and Delegation.
o Corporate Governance and Corporate Social Responsibility.
o New dimensions of Public Management, Management of Change
· Administrative Ethics
o Ethics
and Human Interface: Essence, Determinants and Consequences of Ethics
in human actions; Dimensions of Ethics; Ethics in Private and Public
Relationships.
o Aptitude
and Foundational Value of Civil Services : integrity, impartiality and
non-partisanship, objectivity, dedication to public service, empathy,
tolerance and compassion towards the weaker sections.
o Emotional Intelligence: concepts and their utilities and application in administration and governance.
o Strengthening of Moral values in Governance and Public Administration.
PAPER IV [Knowledge of Language (Hindi and English)]
· सामान्य हिन्दी (राजस्थानी सहित) – 120 Marks
o भाग – अ 30 Marks
§ संधि एवं संधिविच्छेद - दिए हुए शब्दों में संधि करना और संधि-विच्छेद करना।
§ उपसर्ग - उपसर्गों का सामान्य ज्ञान और उनके संयोग से शब्दों की संरचना और शब्दों मेंविद्यमान उपसर्गों को पृथक् करना।
§ प्रत्यय - प्रत्ययों का सामान्य ज्ञान और उनके संयोग से शब्दों की संरचना और शब्दों मेंविद्यमान प्रत्ययों को पृथक् करना।
§ शब्द-युग्मों का अर्थभेद
§ एक वाक्यांष के लिए एक सार्थक शब्द
§ वाक्य-शुद्धि - विभिन्न व्याकरणिक अशुद्धियों वाले वाक्य को शुद्ध करना।
§ मुहावरे व अनुप्रयोग
§ पारिभाषिक-शब्दावली - प्रषासन से सम्बन्धित अंग्रेजी शब्दों के समानार्थक हिन्दी शब्द।
o भाग – ब 30 Marks
§ संक्षिप्तीकरण - गद्यावतरण का उचित शीर्षक एवं एक-तिहाई शब्दों में संक्षिप्तीकरण(गद्यावतरण की शब्द - सीमा 150 शब्द एवं संक्षिप्तीकरण लगभग 50 शब्दों में होनाचाहिए)
§ वृद्धीकरण - किसी सूक्ति, प्रसिद्ध कथन आदि का भाव विस्तार। (शब्द-सीमा 150 शब्द)
§ पत्र-लेखन एवं प्रारूप - कार्यालयी पत्र, निविदा, परिपत्र और अधिसूचना।
o भाग – स 40 Marks
§ किसी समसामयिक एवं अन्य विषय पर निबंध-लेखन (शब्द - सीमा 500 शब्द)
नोट - पाँच विकल्पों में से किसी एक विषय पर निबंध लेखन।
o राजस्थानी साहित्य एवं बोलियाँ 20 Marks
§ खण्ड – क 10 Marks
· राजस्थानी साहित्य का उद्भव एवं विकास
· राजस्थान की विविध बोलियाँ एवं प्रचलन क्षेत्र
· राजस्थानी कहावतों/मुहावरों का हिन्दी अर्थ
· राजस्थानी शब्दों के हिन्दी समानार्थक शब्द
· राजस्थानी पद्य का हिन्दी अनुवाद
§ खण्ड – ख 10 Marks
· इस भाग में राजस्थानी साहित्य के प्रमुख रचनाकारों एवं उनकी रचनाओं सेसंबंधित एवं लोक साहित्य की विधाओं से संबंधित परिचयात्मक प्रश्न पूछेजाएंगे।
1. एक सामान्य परिचयात्मक प्रश्न राजस्थानी काव्य/लोकगीतों सेसंबंधित होगा।
2. एक सामान्य परिचयात्मक प्रश्न राजस्थानी गद्य की विविधविधाओं/लोक-कथा/ लोक-गाथा से संबंधित होगा।
· English 80 Marks
o Part – A (Grammar) 30 Marks
§ Articles
§ Preposition
§ Change of Voice
§ Change of Narration
§ Determiners
§ Tenses
§ Modals
§ Synonyms & Antonyms
§ Phrasal Verbs & Idioms
§ One word substitute
o Part – B (Comprehension and Translation) 20 Marks
§ Translation of five sentences (Hindi to English)
§ Comprehension
of unseen passage (250 words approx.) followed by 5 questions. (Note :
Question No. 5 should preferably be on vocabulary)
o Part – C (Composition) 30 Marks
§ Paragraph Writing (200 Words approx.) (Any one out of 3 topics)
§ Letter Writing / Report Writing: (150 Words approx.)
OR
§ Precis writing
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